Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 28.06.2025 08:43
There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Administration to phase out NIH support of HIV clinical guidelines - The Washington Post
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
New study raises big questions about taurine as anti-aging supplement - Live Science
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.